I am asked to find the following limit:
$$ \lim_{(x,y) \to (1,0)} \frac{(x-1)^2 \ln x}{(x-1)^2 + y^2}$$
Even though when I evaluate the limit on the path $y = 0$, I get $0$ (which is the textbook's answer), that still doesn't prove that the limit exists.
$$ \lim_{(x,y) \to (1,0)} \frac{(x-1)^2 \ln x}{(x-1)^2 + y^2} \stackrel{y = 0}{=} \lim_{x \to 1} \ \ln x = 0 $$
I've thought about using $r^2 = x^2 + y^2$ but quickly abandoned the idea (it's not gonna get me anywhere).
Any guidance is highly appreciated.
Let set $u=x-1$ and $v=y$
$$\displaystyle \lim_{(x,y) \to (1,0)} \frac{(x-1)^2 \ln x}{(x-1)^2 + y^2}=\displaystyle \lim_{(u,v) \to (0,0)} \frac{u^2 \ln (u+1)}{u^2 + v^2}=\cos^2\theta\,\ln(r\cos\theta+1)\to 0$$
indeed by squeeze theorem
$$0\le |\cos^2\theta\,\ln(r\cos\theta+1)|\le |\ln(r\cos\theta+1)| \to 0$$