I need to undertsand what is my mistake here.
$ f(t) = (\cos(t),\sin (t))$
$ f'(t) = (-\sin(t),\cos (t))$
The tangent of a circle is orthogonal to the radius. Since orthogonality in $\mathbb{C}$ is multiplication by $i$, then:
$f'(t) = if(t)$
$ (-\sin(t),\cos (t)) = (i\cos(t),i\sin (t))$
But then $\displaystyle i=-\frac{\sin(t)}{\cos(t)} = \frac{\cos(t)}{\sin(t)} \Rightarrow 1=0$, which is absurd.
If you want to use orthogonality in $\mathbb{C}$, then $f(t)$ and $f'(t)$ should be considered as complex numbers, i.e.,
$f(t)=\cos(t)+i\sin(t)$
and
$f'(t)=-\sin(t)+i\cos(t)$.
Then,
$if(t)=i\cos(t)-\sin(t)=f'(t)$.