I have the function:
$$ g(x) = \lim_{J \to +\infty} \frac{1}{2J} \coth(\frac{x}{2J}) $$
In the answers it gives:
$$ g(x) = \frac{1}{2J}\frac{2J}{x} $$.
I don't understand how the infinity limit of the coth function was found. Any help would be appreciated, thank you!
Edit: Part of the larger question:
$$ L(x) = \lim_{J \to +\infty} \Big[ \frac{1}{J} f_{2J+1} \Big( \frac{x}{J} \Big) \Big], $$ where the Brilllouin function, $f_n(x)$, is defined by:
$$ f_n(x) = \frac{n}{2} \coth \Big( \frac{nx}{2} \Big) - \frac{1}{2} \coth \Big( \frac{x}{2} \Big). $$
And substituting this in gives:
$$ L(x) = \lim_{J \to +\infty} \frac{1}{J} \Big[ (J + \frac{1}{2}) \coth \Big[(1 + \frac{1}{2J})x \Big] - \frac{1}{2}\coth(\frac{x}{2J}) \Big] $$
Here is another way to see that $\coth x \sim \frac{1}{x}$ when $x$ is small:
$$\coth x = \frac{\cosh x}{\sinh x} = \frac{e^x + e^{-x}}{e^x - e^{-x}}$$
For small $x$, $e^x \approx 1 + x$ from the first two terms of its Taylor series. Therefore:
$$\coth x \approx \frac{1+x+1-x}{1+x-(1-x)} = \frac{2}{2x} = \frac{1}{x}$$