I am new to learning about finite rooted binary trees. This lemma below is from John Meiers book: Groups, Graphs and Trees. There is no aval proof in the book. I was just wondering is I could catch a few pointers on how I could solve this. Let $T_1$, $T_2$, and $T_3$ be finite rooted binary trees with the same number of leaves. Then $[T_3 \leftarrow T_2][T_2 \leftarrow T_1] = [T_3 \leftarrow T_1]$ and $[T_2 \leftarrow T_1]^{-1} = [T_1 \leftarrow T_2]$.
2026-03-29 02:10:52.1774750252
Finite Rooted Binary Trees
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I am not sure if what I describe is exactly what you want, but I think it is closely related and thus might just constitute a proof when you translate it to your vocabulary.
Imagine a function $f_{T_1\to T_2} : [0,1] \to [0,1]$ given by two binary trees with the same number of leaves (say $M$) in the following way:
If $X$ would be a random variable $X : \Omega \to [0,1]$ then $f \circ X$ would be a random variable with different distribution, manipulating the trees it might be possible to achieve a distribution that is almost uniform. If we were to interpret $X$ as input data, then $f \circ X$ could be interpreted as a compressed output and the whole setting would be exactly the Huffman coding (e.g. if the number of symbols is of the form $2^k$ then take $T_1$ to be the Huffman tree and full binary tree of height $k$ as $T_2$).
To see that $f_{T_2 \to T_1} \circ f_{T_3 \to T_2} = f_{T_3 \to T_1}$ or with reversed arrows $f_{T_1 \gets T_2} \circ f_{T_2 \gets T_3} = f_{T_1 \gets T_3}$, just consider the definition and focus on the part where we pick the leaf number. Every time we substitute a prefix only the leaf number matters. To be more precise $f_{T_2 \to T_1} \circ f_{T_3 \to T_2}$ is an extension of $(p_{T_1}^{-1}\circ p_{T_2})\circ(p_{T_2}^{-1}\circ p_{T_3}) = p_{T_1}^{-1}\circ p_{T_3}$, but that is precisely the bijection that $f_{T_3\to T_1}$ is extended from.
To see $f_{T_1 \to T_2} = f_{T_2 \to T_1}^{-1}$, observe that for any tree $T$ the function $f_{T \to T}$ is just an identity (every prefix being substituted for itself) and thus the equality follows from the following (please note, that each $f$ is a bijection): $f_{T_1 \to T_2} \circ f_{T_2 \to T_1} = f_{T_2 \to T_2} = id = f_{T_1 \to T_1} = f_{T_2 \to T_1} \circ f_{T_1 \to T_2}$.
Hope that helps, even if just a bit ;-)