I got a homework problem in my differential geometry class with which I'm stuck:
Prove: A map
$X: \mathbb{R} \supseteq I \ \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n, t \rightarrow X(t)$, with $X' \ne 0$
parametrises a line or a line segment if $X'(t)$ and $X''(t)$ are linearly dependent.
- At first I solved it for two dimensions, then an Ansatz can be made for the straight line:
$y(t) = kx(t) + d$, $y'(t) = kx'(t)$ and $y''(t) = kx''(t)$.
And if $X'= (x'(t),y'(t))^T$ and $y''= (x''(t),y''(t))^T$ are linearly dependent, then the determinant of the matrix
\begin{bmatrix} x'&x'' \\ y'&y'' \end{bmatrix}
must equal zero, which implies $x'y'' - x''y' = 0$ or $ \frac{x'}{x''}=\frac{y'}{y''}$. Then I just insert the $x' and x''$ from my Ansatz and see that it fits.
But is that a proove? I'm not sure... (Still it just works in 2 dimensions.)
- Another approach works in three dimensions, then the curvature is given by
$\kappa = \frac{||X' \times X''||}{||X'||^3}$
and if $X', X''$ are linearly dependent, then $X'=a X''$ hold with some constant $a$. So the cross product of two parallel vectors is zero and therefore the curvature is zero which means, $X$ must be a straight line. But does this hold for higher dimensions $n>3$?
So my question is, how do I prove it for n dimensions?
If $X'(t)$ and $X''(t)$ are linearly dependent with $X(t)\ne0$ for all $t$ then there is a function $t\mapsto\lambda (t)$, defined in a neighborhood $U$ of $t=0$, such that $$X''(t)=\lambda(t)X'(t)\qquad(t\in U)\ .$$ If $X(\cdot)\in C^2$ the function $\lambda(t)={X''(t)\cdot X'(t)\over |X'(t)|^2}$ will be automatically continuous.
Let $X'(0)=v_0\ne0$, and consider a fixed vector $e\perp v_0$. The auxiliary scalar function $$\phi(t):=e\cdot X'(t)$$ satisfies $\phi(0)=0$ and $$\phi'(t)=e\cdot X''(t)=\lambda(t)\ e\cdot X'(t)\ ,$$ hence is a solution of the IVP $$\phi'(t)=\lambda(t)\phi(t), \quad\phi(0)=0\ .\tag{1}$$ Since $\phi(t)\equiv0$ is a solution of $(1)$, the general existence and uniqueness theorem for ODEs in fact enforces $\phi(t)\equiv0$, hence $X'(t)\perp e$ for all times. As $e\perp v_0$ was chosen arbitrarily we can conclude that $$X'(t)=g(t) v_0\qquad(t\in U)$$ for a certain function $t\mapsto g(t)>0$. It is then clear that the point $t\mapsto X(t)$ moves on a line with direction $v_0$.