I really need some help with the following proof. I want to show that $\forall x (\neg A(x) \rightarrow B(d)) \therefore \forall x A(x) \lor B(d)$.
I tried to proof it with an indirect proof but always ended with something else. I dont know which subproof I should choose to start with. I know that I need one, because I cant do muss with the implication in my premise.
Maybe I can assume $ \neg (\forall x A(x))$ for my indirect proof?
Indirect proof means this (proof per contradiction):

Using material implication you can substitute $\lnot A(x) \to B(d)$ with $ \lnot\lnot A(x) \lor B(d)$ and then, using double negation elimination, with $ A(x) \lor B(d)$. You have then $$ \forall x \big(A(x) \lor B(d) \big)$$ which, using distributivity of the universal quantifier, is equivalent to $$ \big(\forall x A(x)\big) \lor B(d) $$