For a point $p ∈ R^d$ and a set $ S ⊂ R^d$, we define the distance from p to S to be
$p(p, S)$ = inf$ ∥p − q∥, q∈S$
By convention, we set p(p,∅) = ∞.
Show that p is a limit point of S if and only if ρ(p,S) = 0.
I'm very confused. Why would that only be true if it equals 0? Can someone explain this question to me? Topology in general is such a bad unit for me.
If $p$ is a limit point of $s$ then there exists a sequence $(s_n)$ in $S$ such that $d(p,s_n) \to 0$. Since $0 \leq d(p,S)\leq d(p,s_n)$ for all $n$ we get $d(p,S)=0$ by taking limit as $ n \to \infty$.
Conversely, $d(p,S)=0$ implies (by definition of infimum of a set of real numbers) that there exists a sequence $(s_n)$ in $S$ such that $d(p,s_n) \to 0$. This implies that $p$ is a limit point.