Is the following proposition true?
Let $n \in \mathbb{N}$ be an odd number, then $\sigma(n) < 2n$ .
For $n=p_1^\alpha p_2^\beta$ it is true :
$$\sigma(n)=\left(\frac{p_1^{\alpha+1}-1}{P_1-1}\right)\left(\frac{p_2^{\beta+1}-1}{P_2-1}\right) < 2p_1^{\alpha} p_2^{\beta} \Longleftrightarrow $$
$$2 < \frac{p_1^{\alpha+1} p_2^{\beta+1}+p_1^{\alpha+1}+p_2^{\beta+1}-1}{p_1^{\alpha} p_2^{\beta}(p_1+p_2-1)}=\frac{{p_1}{p_2}}{p_1+p_2-1}+\frac{p_1^{\alpha+1}+p_2^{\beta+1}-1}{p_1^{\alpha} p_2^{\beta}(p_1+p_2-1)}$$
$$\Longrightarrow 2< \frac{{p_1}{p_2}}{p_1+p_2-1}+\frac{p_1^{\alpha+1}+p_2^{\beta+1}-1}{p_1^{\alpha} p_2^{\beta}(p_1+p_2-1)}$$ This is true beacuse of $\frac{{p_1}{p_2}}{p_1+p_2-1} \geq 2$ and $\frac{p_1^{\alpha+1}+p_2^{\beta+1}-1}{p_1^{\alpha} p_2^{\beta}(p_1+p_2-1)} > 0$
Can somebody help me for $n=p_1^{\alpha_1} p_2^{\alpha_2}...p_m^{\alpha_m}$ ?
Thank you.
No, that's false. The numbers for which $\sigma(n) = 2n$ are called perfect, while $\sigma(n) > 2n$ are called abundant. It is currently unknown whether there are odd perfect numbers or not, while the smallest odd abundant number is $945$.
Even more: there are infinitely many odd abundant numbers (cfr. OEIS sequence A005231). This is because every integer multiple (so in particular every odd multiple) of an abundant number is again abundant.