Well I attempted to try this but I failed to solve it: So $$\Phi_{p^{n}}(x)= \frac{x^{p^{n}} - 1}{\Phi_{1}(x) \Phi_{p^{2}}(x) \dots \Phi_{p^{n-1}}(x)}$$
Now I'm just stuck here. I saw a result somewhere on the net that said $\Phi_{p^n}(x) = \Phi_p(x^{p^{n-1}})$. I would just use that, but I don't see why that result is true or know how to show that's true.
How do I approach this?
See that $\Phi_{p^r}(X)\neq \Phi_{p}(X^{p^r-1})$ but $\Phi_{p^r}(X)= \Phi_{p}(X^{p^{r-1}})$
See that $$\Phi_{p^r}(X)=\frac{X^{p^r}-1}{\Phi_1(X)\Phi_p(X)\cdots\Phi_{p^{r-1}}(X)}=\frac{\left(X^{p^{r-1}}\right)^p-1}{X^{p^{r-1}}-1}=\Phi_p(X^{p^{r-1}})$$
Can you now apply this to your question?