Going through my lecture notes I found the following claim, that he didn't prove: If $(M, \tau)$ is a II$_1$-factor and $p, q \in M$ are projections but neither $0$ nor $1$ such that they have equal trace $\tau(q) = \tau(p)$. Then, using that $M$ is a factor, we can find an $x \in M$ such that $qxp \neq 0$.
I don't really see how this should work. How does one show that?
Thanks!
We don't need $p$ and $q$ of equal trace: only that they are nonzero.
Assume that $M\subset B(H)$. The key observation is that the orthogonal projection onto $K=\overline{MpH}$ is in the center of $M$: indeed, for any $x\in M$, $xMpH\subset MpH$, so $xp_K=p_Kxp_K$ for all $x\in M$. Using $x$ selfadjoint, we get that $xp_K=p_Kx$, and it follows that $p_K\in M'$. If $y\in M'$, then $yMpH=MpyH\subset MpH$; so $yp_K=p_Kyp_K$, and as before we get that $p_K\in M''=M$. So $p_K$ is a central projection in $M$.
Suppose that $qxp=0$ for all $x\in M$ (so $qMp=0$) and that $M$ is a factor. By the above, $p_K$ is central, so $p_K=I$. Thus $\overline{MpH }=H$. As $qMpH=0$, we get $qH=0$, a contradiction. It follows that there exists $x\in M$ with $qxp\ne0$.