For positive semidefinite matrix $A\in\mathbb R^{n\times n}:$
$ \frac{1}{n}\text{tr} A = (\text{det} A)^\frac{1}{n} $
Is this true?
For positive semidefinite matrix $A\in\mathbb R^{n\times n}:$
$ \frac{1}{n}\text{tr} A = (\text{det} A)^\frac{1}{n} $
Is this true?
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Consider $$A=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}.$$ We have that
$$(x\:\: y)\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x\\y\end{pmatrix}=(x+y)^2\ge 0.$$ Thus it is positive semidefinite.
Now, $\det(A)=0$ and $\rm{tr}(A)=2.$ Thus the equality you claim is false in general.