For sets $B$ with $μ(B)<∞$ the existence of an $μ$-hull follows from the Borel regularity of the measure $μ$

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From this I should also be able to conclude that for sets $B$ with $\mu(B)<\infty$ the existence of an $\mu$-hull follows from the Borel regularity of the measure $\mu $:

I know:

An outer measure $\mu$ is called Borel measure if all open and thus all Borel sets $\mu$-are measurable. $\mu$ is called Borel-regular if in addition each subset $A \subset \mathbb{R}^{N}$ has a Borel superset $B$ with the same measure. $\mu$ is called open-regular if $B$ in the case $\mu(A)<\infty$.

$A \subset \mathbb{R}^{N}$ is so called $\mu$-hull of $B \subset A$ if $A \mu$-measurable, $B \subset A$ and $\mu(T \cap A)=\mu(T \cap B)$ applies to all measurable $T \subset \mathbb{R}^{N}$

But how do I show $\mu(T \cap A)=\mu(T \cap B)$ (or is this analogue to the proof of the question linked above)?