Yesterday a question popped in my mind before going to sleep and I can't solve it (probably because my math knowledge is lacking). Assuming there is a function
$$f(x) = a^x$$
Its inverse function would look like this:
$$f^{-1}(x) = \log_a x$$
Question:
For which value of $a$ would the graphs of these two functions just touch at only one common point (of tangency)?

Basically, the inverse function is obtained by finding the mirror image of $y=a^x$, in $y=x $ .Now note for both the function and its inverse to intersect at just one point, $y=x $ must be the common tangent to both of them. So slope of tangent of $y=a^x $ ,$y=\log_a x$ and $y=x $ must be equal. So,$ 1=a^x \ln a=\ln x{\log_a e } $ now you have 3 equations and 2 unknowns one being 'a' and other being the value of $x $ at which the functions have only one point of intersection . solve finally to get $a^e=e $ which gives the value of $a $ approximately as 1.44.