For which values of $\alpha$ does the integral $$\int\limits_2^{+\infty}\frac{e^{\alpha x}}{(x-1)^{\alpha}\ln x}\mathrm{d}x$$ converge?
I'm lost here.
For simplicity, let us denote the above integral as $I_1$
I was able to prove (I noticed that it's kind of standard exercise though) that: $$I_2 = \int\limits_2^{+\infty}\frac{1}{(x-1)^{\alpha}\ln^{\beta} x}$$
$I_2$ converges for $\alpha > 1$ and $\forall\ \beta$.
converges for $\alpha = 1$ and $\beta > 1$. For $\beta \leq 1$ it diverges.
diverges for $\alpha < 1$ and $\forall\ \beta$.
So my strategy was to use $I_2$ to prove the converges/divergence of $I_1$, by means of inequalities, but I get nothing from this.
For instance I did the following:
For $\alpha > 1$ we have that
$$0 < \int\limits_2^{+\infty} \frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x^{\alpha}\ln x} \leq \int\limits_2^{+\infty}\frac{e^{\alpha x}}{(x-1)^{\alpha}\ln x} \mathrm{d}x$$
That is, for $\beta = 1$
$$0 < I_2 \leq I_1$$
From 1. we know that $I_2$ converges, but this doesn't tell us anything about the convergence of $I_1$.
The answer given by my textbook is that $I_1$ converges for $\alpha < 0$, but I don't know how to arrive at that conclusion.
Hint
What you've shown about the integral w/o the exponential factor is actually somewhat harder conceptually than the integral at hand. If $\alpha< 0$ then the exponential factor is an exponential decay which overpowers any of the other behavior and will make the integral converge. If $\alpha > 0,$ it's an exponential growth that will likewise make it diverge. $\alpha = 0$ you've already handled.