I tried to write a formal proof for the theorem: $A$ subset of $\mathbb R$ well ordered by the normal order $\implies A$ is at most of cardinality $\aleph_0$.
Any suggestions?
Thanks.
I tried to write a formal proof for the theorem: $A$ subset of $\mathbb R$ well ordered by the normal order $\implies A$ is at most of cardinality $\aleph_0$.
Any suggestions?
Thanks.
On
A sketch proof...
Consider $\mathbb{R}$ as the set of equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences of rationals. We define "the normal" partial order on $\mathbb{R}$ by $x \leq y$ iff $(x = y)$ OR $(\forall \langle x_{i} \rangle)(\forall \langle y_{i} \rangle)(\langle x_{i} \rangle \in x$ AND $\langle y_{i} \rangle \in y \rightarrow (\exists n)(n \in \mathbb{N} \rightarrow (\forall m)(m > n \rightarrow x_{m} < y_{m}))))$. For $A$ to be well-ordered under this partial order there can only be at most $\aleph_{0}$ distinct $n$ in the last part of the definition as they are drawn from $\mathbb{N}$.
On
Suppose $A\subseteq\mathbb R$ can be well-ordered by the usual $<$, and fix an enumeration of the rationals, i.e. $\mathbb Q = \langle q_n\mid n\in\omega\rangle$.
For $a\in A$ denote $S(a)$ the successor of $a$ in $A$, if $b\in A$ is a maximal element of $A$ then $S(b) = b+1$.
For every $a\in A$ set $q_a$ the least rational $q_n$ in the enumeration, such that $a< q_n< S(a)$. Since $a\neq S(a)$ we have that $\mathbb Q\cap (a,S(a))$ is non-empty, therefore such minimal element exists.
We prove that this is indeed one to one, suppose not then for some $a, b\in A$ such that $a\le b$ we have $q_a=q_b$. By the choice of $q_a$ we have that $a<q_a=q_b<S(a)$, therefore $a\le b<q_b=q_a<S(a)$. Since the $S(a)$ is the least element of $A$ such that $a<S(a)$, we have that $b\le a$ therefore $a=b$.
We found an injective function of $A$ into a countable set, therefore it is countable.
On
The following idea uses some set-theoretic machinery, has the advantage of coming from a simple geometric visualization.
Suppose to the contrary that there is an uncountable set $A$ of reals which is well-ordered under the natural order.
Then $A$ is order isomorphic to an uncountable ordinal. It follows that some subset $B$ of $A$ is order isomorphic to the least uncountable ordinal $\omega_1$.
The set $B$ has a least element. By shifting if necessary, we can make that least element $0$. Either $B$ is bounded above or it isn't. If it is bounded above, let $m$ be the least upper bound. Note that since $B$ is order-isomorphic to $\omega_1$, $m$ cannot be in $B$. Then the map that takes $x$ to $x/(m-x)$ is order preserving, and "stretches" $B$ so that for every integer $n$, there is $b\in B$ such that $b>n$. (We have kept the name $B$ for the stretched set.)
So we can assume that $B$ has smallest element $0$, and that for every integer $n$, there is an element of $B$ which is $>n$.
Let $B_n$ be the intersection of $B$ with the interval $[0, n]$. Then $B_n$ is order isomorphic to an initial segment of $\omega_1$. Since $\omega_1$ is the least uncountable ordinal, it follows that $B_n$ is countable.
Since $$B =\bigcup_{n \in N} B_n$$ we have expressed $B$ as a countable union of countable sets, or equivalently $\omega_1$ as a countable union of countable ordinals. This is impossible.
Now that your question has been answered, let me point out that it may be interesting to observe furthermore that all the countable well-orderings are in fact represented by suborders of $\langle\mathbb{R},\lt\rangle$, and even of $\langle\mathbb{Q},\lt\rangle$. Let me give two proofs.
The first proof is an elementary exercise in transfinite induction. One shows that every countable ordinal $\alpha$ embeds into $\mathbb{Q}$. Note that $0$ embeds trivially. If an ordinal $\alpha$ embeds, then by composing with an isomorphism of $\mathbb{Q}$ with an interval in $\mathbb{Q}$, we may suppose the embedding is bounded above, and thereby extend it to an embedding of $\alpha+1$. If $\lambda$ is a countable limit ordinal, with $\lambda=\text{sup}_n\alpha_n$, then by induction we may map $\alpha_n$ into $\mathbb{Q}\cap (n,n+1)$, and this is an embedding of an ordinal at least as large as $\lambda$. QED
The second proof is simply to argue that $\langle\mathbb{Q},\lt\rangle$ is universal for countable linear orders: every countable linear order embeds into $\mathbb{Q}$. This is proved by using just the "forth" part of Cantor's famous back-and-forth argument, namely, given a linear order $L=\langle\{p_n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}\},\lt_L\rangle$, then map $p_n$ to a rational $q_n$ so that one has a order-preserving map at each finite stage. The next element $p_{n+1}$ relates to the previous elements either by being above them all, between two of them, or below them all, and we may choose a corresponding $q_{n+1}$ of the same type. So we get an order-preserving map $L\to \mathbb{Q}$. Thus, in particular, every countable well-ordering embeds into $\mathbb{Q}$. QED