$\lim \limits_{x \to 0} f(x)=\lim \limits_{x\to a} f(x-a)$
My strategy (based off an answer to one of my previous questions) has been to set the two limits equal to some number c, so that $\lim \limits_{x \to 0}$ $f(x)=c$ and $\lim \limits_{x\to a}$ $f(x-a)=c$, and then to show both limits equal each other. So given an $\epsilon >0$, there is a $\delta >0$ such that,
if $0<|x-a|<\delta$, then $|f(x-a)-c|<\epsilon$
and
if $0<|x-0|=|x|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-c|<\epsilon$
How do I proceed from here to show that the two limits are equal?
If you're trying to prove they're equal, then you should not be assuming they're equal by calling them both $c$.
Then you say "So given an $\varepsilon>0$, there is$~\ldots$" etc., but that is something you need to prove, not something you have already shown to be true.
Suppose you let $c=\lim\limits_{x\to0}f(x)$.
Then you need to prove $c=\lim\limits_{x\to a}f(x-a)$.
Given $\varepsilon>0$ you need to prove there exists $\delta>0$ such that if $0<|x-a|<\delta$ then $|f(x-a)-c|<\varepsilon$.
You know that there exists $\delta>0$ such that if $0<|w|<\delta$ then $|f(w)-c|<\varepsilon$.
If $0<|x-a|<\delta$ then, letting $w=x-a$, you have $0<|w|<\delta$, so $|f(w)-c|<\varepsilon$. That says $|f(x-a)-c|<\varepsilon$.