Just out of interest, how would I provide a proof that if $a-b = \frac{a-b}{ab}$, then $a$ has to be equal to $b$? It appears really logical, I just want to know how to formally prove it. Thanks for any suggestions.
2026-03-25 19:06:08.1774465568
Formal proof that if $a-b = \frac{a-b}{ab}$, $a-b$ has to be zero.
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Per lulu's comment, it's not true, but this is true:
$a-b=\dfrac{a-b}{ab}\implies (a-b)ab=a-b \implies (a-b)(ab-1)=0\implies a=b$ or $ab=1$