In the question
What does it mean for something to be true but not provable in peano arithmetic?
Henning Makholm states, "...he [Godel] gave a (formalizable, with a few additional technical assumptions) proof that a particular sentence was neither "provable in PA" nor "disprovable in PA", and a convincing (but not strictly formalizable) argument that this sentence is true about the actual natural numbers."
Why is it not formalizable? Shouldn't it be formalizable in some system outside of PA, like ZFC, for example?
Well, take formal theory $PAT$ which you get by adding a predicate $T$ to Peano Arithmetic, adding the obvious axioms to make $T$ a compositional truth-predicate, and allowing the truth predicate to appear in instances of the induction schema. The $PAT$ proves $Con(PA)$ and hence $G$ the Gödel sentence for Peano Arithmetic, and hence $T(G)$. So we can certainly formalize one natural line of argument for the truth of $G$, and we don't need anything as fancy as ZFC to do the trick. (But I suppose it is open to question how close this line comes to reflecting Gödel's informal remarks, and anyway, the availability of $PAT$ doesn't affect the point Henning Makholm was after, as Carl Mummert notes.)