Let $f$ be a polynomial having $n$ distinct real roots: $$f(x)=(x-x_1)(x-x_2)\dots(x-x_n)$$
Prove that $$\frac{1}{f(x)}=\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{f'(x_k)(x-x_k)}, \: \forall x \in \mathbb{R} - \{x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n \} $$
I don't know much about partial fractions, but this looks very much like them. I tried to use induction for this, but I couldn't really make the jump from $n-1$ to $n$ and I honestly wouldn't have been satisfied even if I had solved it that way, because I would really like to see where this formula comes from. I'm sorry if this is actually very easy, I simply don't know how to approach it
Have you tried decomposing $\frac{1}{f(x)}$ into partial fractions. By that i mean writing $\frac{1}{f(x)} = \frac{A_1}{x-x_1}+...+\frac{A_n}{x-x_n}$ and solving for each $A_i$? Then i think the first fraction would look something like $\frac{1}{(x-x_1)(x_1-x_2)(x_1-x_3)...(x_1-x_n)}$. Then calculating $f'(x_1)$ should get you the result you want.