Suppose we know Fourier transform of $f(t)$ is $F(\omega)$. Can we find Fourier transform of $\frac{1}{f(t)}$.
I was thinking we can write $\frac{1}{f(t)}=( f(t))^{-{1}}$. So I guess a more general question is can we find Fourier transform of $(f(t))^k$ for any k?
For $ k \geq 1$, the answer is as above. For $k < 0$, in general $F(\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{f(x)}e^{-2\pi i \omega x} dx$ need not be even defined. For instance, if $$f = x^{-2}\chi_{|x| > 1} + \chi_{|\chi| \leq 1},\quad \chi_A(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & x \in A \\ 0 & x \notin A\end{cases}$$ then $F(\omega)$ is defined since the integrand is finite, but $1/f$ is not even integrable and I do not know if one can make sense of this without using tempered distributions. I do not know if one can salvage anything useful without using properties specific to the function $f$.