First of all, I'm sorry to ask too simple math question.
But I have little backgroud knowledge of mathmatics so it took so long time to me.
In my lecture note it says $\frac{1}{1+x} -1 \approx -x$.
How this is possible? Is it a kind of taylor approximation? Or it uses the fact $\log(1+x) \approx x$?
Thanks for your help.

Multiplying by $1+x$, $$\frac1{1+x}-1\approx-x\iff-x\approx-x-x^2.$$ The approximation is good when $x\ll x^2$ or $1\ll x$.