This is a simple question. Since $\cos(\theta)^2 + \sin(\theta)^2 = 1$
Can I take the inverse of this $\frac{1}{\cos^2(\theta)}+\frac{1}{\sin^2(\theta)} = \frac{1}{1}$?
Finally getting $\frac{1}{\cos^2(\theta)}+\frac{1}{\sin^2(\theta)} = \cos(\theta)^2 + \sin(\theta)^2$
If this is incorrect thinking can someone please put me on the right path?
Thanks
No, since: $$\dfrac{1}{\cos^2\theta}+\dfrac{1}{\sin^2\theta}\neq \dfrac1{\cos^2\theta+\sin^2\theta}.$$ $$\dfrac{1}{\sin^2\theta}+\dfrac{1}{\cos^2\theta}=\dfrac{\cos^2\theta+\sin^2\theta}{\sin^2\theta\cos^2\theta}=\dfrac{1}{\sin^2\theta\cos^2\theta}\neq1.$$ In general, $\tfrac1a+\tfrac1b=\tfrac1{a+b}$ is not true, that's like saying that one half plus one half equals one quarter.