If $\Phi(y)$ is a monotonic decreasing function is true that
$$\frac{d\Phi^{-1}(y)}{dy} = \frac{1}{\Phi'(\Phi^{-1}(y))}$$
If so, how?
It works for $y = \Phi(x) = e^{-x}, \quad \Phi^{-1}(y) = -log(y), \quad \frac{d\Phi^{-1}(y)}{dy} = \frac{-1}{y}, \quad $
use the fact $$ \Phi\left(\Phi^{-1}(y)\right) = y$$ and the chain rule for the derivative.