I run into a simple question about the fractional exponentiation of a function. Suppose that $f(x)$ is a real valued function which is always positive definite on its domain. Is it possible to obtain a negative value by a fractional exponentiation of the function $f(x)$? i.e., the fractional exponentiation ${\left( {f(x)} \right)^{\frac{m}{n}}}$ (where $m$ and $n$ are some integers) could lead to a negative result? if yes, when $m$ be an even integer, can we still obtain a negative result?
Of course, I know that this question is reminiscent of the fractional exponentiation of real numbers in calculus. Can we simply apply our knowledge about fractional exponentiation of real numbers to functions?
Thank you very much in advance.
It depends how you define fractional exponentiation.
For example, we typically view ${x^{\frac{1}{2}}}$ with being synonymous with "${\sqrt{x}}$" (which is always positive); but perhaps a better, more complete view is to think of ${x^{\frac{1}{2}}}$ as being a set of values satisfying the fact that their square gives ${x}$: $$ x^{\frac{1}{2}} = \{a\ |\ a^2 = a\times a = x\} $$ in this way, ${\sqrt{x}}$ (which always gives a positive value) is just one of the solutions in ${x^{\frac{1}{2}}}$. In fact, we have that $$ \sqrt{x},-\sqrt{x} \in x^{\frac{1}{2}} $$ So just take ${\left(f(x)\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}}$ as the negative solution and you are set.
I WANT TO MAKE IT CLEAR THOUGH: if you are treating fractional exponentiation as being synonymous with only taking the positive roots, then no, you will obviously never get a negative result. Hopefully this helps.