Let's say I have a 3 dimensional sphere $S^2$ and I define the following transformation $R_1$
- rotate the sphere around the north-south axis of $\frac{\pi}{2}$ (north and south are fixed points till now)
- rotate a single, predetermined meridian (so a circle containing north and south) of $\frac{\pi}{2}$ (no fixed points remain)
It seems to me that no point remains fixed and applying the mapping 4 times ${R_1}^4$ corresponds to the identity.
Why isn't the map $R_1$ - defined as the composition of the above two transformations - acting freely on the sphere as the quotient group $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$?
I know that it contradicts a well known theorem according to which only the antipodal mapping acts freely on $S^{2n}$.
The theorem mentioned in the question is based on the invariant degree of a continuous mapping, but the second part of the mapping described in the question (i.e. rotating only a meridian of a sphere) is not a continuous function, indeed the following doesn't hold: