Fubini theorum for integrating 1 dimension of a 3d convolution

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I have 3D volume that is convoluted with a 3D blur function. Both are positive and integrate to a finite value. I can see experimentally (meaning playing with matlab) that this is true:

$\int_{-a}^{a }(g\star f)(x,y,z)dz=(\int_{-a}^{a}g(x,y,z)dz)\star (\int_{-b}^{b }f(x,y,z)dz)$

I see that wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convolution#Integration , http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fubini%27s_theorem#Corollary) has the following property of convolution:

$\int_{R}^{ }(g\star f)(x)dx=(\int_{R}^{ }g(x)dx) (\int_{R}^{ }f(x)dx)$

How could this be proven for my case? Sorry I am just a programmer if this is obvious.

edit: doing a little more math, but still not there.

so I expand out the convolution to give the following integral

$$h(x,y)=\int_{\mathbb{Z}}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{X}'}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Y}'}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Z}'}^{ } g(x',y',z')f(x-x',y-y',z-z')dx'dy'dz'dz$$

I then rearrange the integrals to put the integrals over z in the center (is this correct?)

$$h(x,y)=\int_{\mathbb{X}}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Y}'}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Z}}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Z}'}^{ } g(x',y',z')f(x-x',y-y',z-z')dz'dzdx'dy'$$

I then ignore the x and y integrals for a moment, to get

$$\int_{\mathbb{Z}}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Z}'}^{ } g(x',y',z')f(x-x',y-y',z-z')dz'dz$$

which matches the equation from the wikipedia page. Both functions are always positive, so I can change this to

$$\int_{\mathbb{Z}}^{ }\int_{\mathbb{Z}'}^{ } \left | g(x',y',z') \right |\left |f(x-x',y-y',z-z') \right |dz'dz$$

since g does not have any z in it

$$\int_{\mathbb{Z}}^{ } \left | g(x',y',z') \right |\left [ \int_{\mathbb{Z}'}^{ }\left |f(x-x',y-y',z-z') \right |dz\right ]dz'$$

which gives: $$\int_{\mathbb{Z}}^{ } \left | g(x',y',z') \right | \left \| f \right \|_{1} dz' = \left \| g \right \|_{1}\left \| f \right \|_{1}$$

(I have no idea what $\left \| \right \|_{1}$ means or how this step works, hard to find a symbol on google!) So putting back the integrals of x' and y', this gives

$$H(x,y)=\int_{\mathbb{X}'}^{ } \int_{\mathbb{Y}'}^{ }\left \| g \right \|_{1} \left \| f \right \|_{1} dx'dy' =???$$ which is where I lost it