If $f:A\to B$ and $g:C\to D $ are two functions. When does $g\circ f$ make sense?
My thinking: when $\operatorname{Im}(f)\subseteq C$.
If $f:A\to B$ and $g:C\to D $ are two functions. When does $g\circ f$ make sense?
My thinking: when $\operatorname{Im}(f)\subseteq C$.
You are right. The function $g\circ f$ makes sense when and only when $f(A)\subset C$.