Let $$f(x)=\int_0^\infty\Big|\sin(t)\cdot\sin(x\,t)\cdot e^{-t}\Big|\,dt,$$ where $|\dots|$ denotes the absolute value. We are concerned only with positive values of $x$ (i.e. let the domain of the function be $\mathbb{R}^+$).
The graph of this function looks roughly as follows (modulo possible errors in numeric algorithms used to plot it):

The function values at rational points can be evaluated in a closed form, e.g. $$f\left(\frac32\right)=\frac2{145}\left(24+\frac{27\,\sqrt3\,\left(e^{\frac\pi3}+e^{-\frac\pi3}\right)-24\,\left(e^{\frac\pi3}-e^{-\frac\pi3}\right)-4}{e^\pi-e^{-\pi}}\right).$$
Questions:
- Is the function $f(x)$ continuous? Is it smooth? Is it analytic?
- How many local extrema does it have?
- What is the $\lim\limits_{x\,\to\,\infty}f(x)$, if it exists?
- Can we find a closed-form value of $f(x)$ at an explicit irrational point (given by a closed-form expression)?
- Is there a general formula for values of $f(x)$ at rational points?
My calculation shows that
$$f(x) = \frac{1}{\pi}\coth\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) + \frac{2}{\pi} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(2n^{2}x^{2} - 1) \sinh\pi + 2nx\sin (2\pi n x)}{(4n^{2} - 1)(4n^{4}x^{4} + 1) (\cosh \pi -\cos (2\pi n x))}. \tag{1} $$
This allows (at least theoretically) calculate the value of $f$. This shows that
The series $\text{(1)}$ defines a holomorphic function, say $\tilde{f}$, on $\Bbb{C} \setminus \Bbb{R}$ with poles $$ \frac{\pm 1 \pm i}{2n} : n = 1, 2, \cdots \quad\text{and}\quad \frac{k}{n} \pm \frac{i}{2n} : k \in \Bbb{Z}, n = 1, 2, \cdots. $$ Because these poles accumulate to $\Bbb{R}$ as $n\to\infty$, I'm not sure if $\tilde{f}$ and $f$ can be amalgamated to yield a nice function.
This sum converges uniformly on $\Bbb{R}$: putting $y = nx$, $$ \left| \frac{(2n^{2}x^{2} - 1) \sinh\pi + 2nx\sin (2\pi n x)}{(4n^{4}x^{4} + 1) (\cosh \pi -\cos (2\pi n x))} \right| \leq \frac{(2y^{2} + 1)\sinh \pi + 2|y|}{(4y^{4}+1)(\cosh \pi - 1)}, $$ which is uniformly bounded by some constant $C > 0$. Thus we can take limit $x \to \infty$ pointwise to $\text{(1)}$, proving that $$ \lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) = \frac{1}{\pi}\coth\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right). $$
The graph of its derivative is shown below: I'm unable to find any clear pattern that the zeros of $f'(x)$ must satisfy. One exception is that some zeros seem to be very close to integers.
To derive $\text{(1)}$, I just exploited the following formula:
$$ \left| \sin x \right| = \frac{2}{\pi} \sum_{n \in \Bbb{Z}} \frac{1 - \cos(2nx)}{4n^{2} - 1}, \quad x \in \Bbb{R} $$
Since each summand is non-negative, Tonelli says that we can plug this to the integral and interchange the order of limiting operators to obtain
$$ f(x) = \frac{4}{\pi^{2}} \sum_{m \in \Bbb{Z}} \sum_{n \in \Bbb{Z}} \frac{1}{(4m^{2}-1)(4n^{2} - 1)} \int_{0}^{\infty} (1 - \cos 2mt)(1 - \cos 2nxt) e^{-t} \, dt. $$
Calculating the integral and utilizing the fact $\sum_{n\in\Bbb{Z}} (4n^{2}-1)^{-1} = 0$, this reduces to
$$ f(x) = \frac{4}{\pi^{2}} \sum_{m \in \Bbb{Z}} \sum_{n \in \Bbb{Z}} \frac{1}{(4m^{2}-1)(4n^{2} - 1)(4(nx+m)^{2} + 1)}. $$
Further simplification then gives $\text{(1)}$.
EDIT.