Let $f(x) = \psi^{(1)}(ix)$ then we have $f(x-i)-f(x) = 1/x^2$ if my calculations are correct. This is based on the formula for the diagmma
$$
\psi(x+1)-\psi(x) = \frac{1}{x},
$$
then differentiate to get $1/x^2$ and use $ix$ since your increment is $-i$.
Here is one solution, in terms of a "polygamma" function. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polygamma_function
Let $f(x) = \psi^{(1)}(ix)$ then we have $f(x-i)-f(x) = 1/x^2$ if my calculations are correct. This is based on the formula for the diagmma $$ \psi(x+1)-\psi(x) = \frac{1}{x}, $$ then differentiate to get $1/x^2$ and use $ix$ since your increment is $-i$.