I am searching for a function $~f : \mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ with $$ f\left(\frac{1}{k}\right) = 0 ~\forall k\in\mathbb{N}. $$ This function has to be smooth!
First approach: I have tried $f(x) = \sin(\pi/x)$. This works, however, this function is not smooth (as far as I am concerned?).
Context: The overall aim is to find two functions $f,g$ such that $f\neq g$ but $f(1/k) = g(1/k) ~\forall k\in\mathbb{N}$.
EDIT: Smooth means $f\in C^\infty$. $~f$ has to be at least defined on $(0,1]$.
Let $g(x)=\exp(-\frac1{x-1})$ for $x>1$, and $g(x)=0$ for $x\le 1$. This automatically satisfies $g(1/k)=0$, since $1/k\le 1$. For a proof that $g$ is smooth, see
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-analytic_smooth_function#The_function_is_smooth
Note that my function $g$ is a shift of Wikipedia's function $f$, i.e. $f(x)=g(x+1)$.