Is there any theorem or proof that if a function satisfy the functional equation $ f(1-s)=f(s)$ and $ f(s) >0$ for each real $s$ then $ f(s)= \xi(s)$ or $ f(s)= \operatorname{const}$?
2026-04-11 08:52:29.1775897549
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Functional equation and Riemann function $ \xi(s) $
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The question is wrong.
In fact for the functional equation $f(1-s)=f(s)$, its general solution, according to http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/fe/fe1113.pdf, should be $f(s)=\Phi(s,1-s)$, where $\Phi(s,1-s)$ is any symmetric function of $s$ and $1-s$.
And also there are infintely many $\Phi(s,1-s)$ satisfly $\Phi(s,1-s)>0$ for each real $s$.
If $f(s)$ is a solution then so is $f^2$ or $e^f$ or $H(f(s))$ for any positivity-preserving function $H$. The functional equation alone does not characterize the (completed) zeta function up to a finite number of parameters.