I need to solve the following functional equation: $$f(x)+2f^2(x^2)-1=0,\forall x\in (1,+\infty)$$
where $f^2(x^2)$ means the multiplication of the real number $f(x^2)$ with itself.
I sense that any solution of the above functional equation belongs to the class of constant functions on $(1,+\infty)$.
Can anyone suggest something that would help me? I wish happy new year with peace along the world. May only love be in our hearts.
The conjecture is false even if we require the function to be continuous on $(1,+\infty)$. Take $f(x)=-\cos\left(\frac{1}{\ln x}\right)$.
To see that this is a solution, use the double angle formula $\cos x=2\cos^2\frac x2-1$:
$$-f(x)=\cos\left(\frac{1}{\ln x}\right)=2\cos^2\left(\frac{1}{2\ln x}\right)-1=2[f(x^2)]^2-1$$
Hence, $f(x)+2[f(x^2)]^2-1=0$.
Edit: added a proof of its correctness