I have one problem, that I think it's pretty hard to solve. The problem reads:
Let $G$ be a finite $p-$group, and $H < G$ (i.e $H \le G$, and $H \neq G$). Prove that $H \neq N_G(H)$.
Here are my thoughts on this problem:
I know that if $G$ is a finite $p-$group, then its center is non-trivial, i.e $\mathcal{Z}(G) \neq \{e\}$.
Then, I start off by Proof by Contradiction (note that we already have $H \lhd N_G(H)$), i.e, assume that $H = N_G(H)$, then for every $g \notin H$, there exists $h_g\in H$, such that $g^{-1}h_gg \notin H$. And from here, I come up with the fact that, in order for $H$ to satisfy $H = N_G(H)$, we must have $\mathcal{Z}(G) \lhd H$.
However, the two facts above don't seem to help much. :(
Can you guys give me a little push on this problem?
Thanks so much,
And have a good day,
Hint:
In fact ,a $p-$ group is a nilpotent group.
You can prove these step by step:
A group $G$ is nilpotent.
Every subgroup of $G$ is subsnormal.
If $H<G$ (strictly) then $H<N_G(H)$ (strictly).
We have that $1\longrightarrow 2$, $2\longrightarrow 3$ and if $G$ is finite $3\longrightarrow 1$.