I have to prove that $G=\langle x,y\ |\ x^{-1}y^2x=y^{-2}, y^{-1}x^2y=x^{-2} \rangle$ is torsion-free.
Some things about this group that I understand are first show that $M=\langle (xy)^2,x^2,y^2 \rangle \unlhd G$, which is fine as $N=\langle x^2,y^2 \rangle \unlhd G$ and setting $z=xy$ and noticing $x^{-1}zx\equiv y^{-1}zy\equiv z^{-1}\ \text{mod}\ N $ and raising square power on both sides tells that $M=\langle z^2,x^2,y^2 \rangle \unlhd G$ and also $M$ is abelian and also torsion-free as it is freely generated by three elements.
Now $G/M$ is a Klein 4- group =$\{M,xM,yM,zM\}$ is also fine.
Now I want to check that if I pick any $g\in G=M\cup x M\cup yM\cup zM$ such that $1\neq g$ and $|g|=n$, then we get some contradiction.
If I let $g\in xM$, say $g=xm$, then I cannot seem to work my way out of here.
What else I see is as $g\in xM\in G/M$, definitely, $o(gM)\ |\ 4$, and thus $g$ can have even order only.
I am not sure how you proved that $M$ is free abelian of rank $3$ but I believe it.
In fact $x^{-1}z^2x=y^{-1}z^2y = z^{-2}$.
For $x^{-1}z^2x = yxyx$ and $$(yxyx)(xyxy) = yxyx^2yxy = yxy^2x^{-2}xy = yxy^2x^{-1}y = yy^{-2}y=1,$$ and $y^{-1}z^2y=z^{-2}$ is proved similarly.
So, for $m = x^{2i}y^{2j}z^{2k} \in M$, we have
$(xm)^2 = x^{2+4i}$ which is a nontrivial element of the torsion-free subgroup $M$, so $xm$ is not a torison element. Similarly for $ym$ and $xym$.