I am looking at this example:
$g_n(z)=z^n$ and domain $D={z: |z|<1}$
I see that every $g_n$ will converge to 0 for $n \rightarrow \infty$. Thus it converges.
Now, how can I show that it is or is not uniformly?
I am looking at this example:
$g_n(z)=z^n$ and domain $D={z: |z|<1}$
I see that every $g_n$ will converge to 0 for $n \rightarrow \infty$. Thus it converges.
Now, how can I show that it is or is not uniformly?
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Try to compute the limit of $g_n\left(1-\frac1n\right)$ when $n\to\infty$. If the limit exists and is not zero, the convergence cannot be uniform on the disk $D$.
Once this is done, you might note that $1-\frac1n$ converges to $1$ which is not in the disk $D$ and try to imagine subsets of $D$ on which the convergence is uniform.
Edit: In view of the comments, let us recall the following facts: