I am trying to learn Galois Theory from Dummit and Foote. I just started the exercises in the section regarding Galois Groups of Polynomials and realize I have so many questions that I can only partially answer myself, and am not sure if they are even relevant questions, I think I could use some guidance. The disorganized and stream-of-conscience nature of the discussion below is a reflection of my confusion. Any helpful nudges appreciated.
The first exercises asks:
Show that a cubic with a multiple root has a linear factor. Is the same true for quartics?
I try to make sense of the question-- Suppose $f(x)$ is some cubic polynomial with coefficients in some field $F$. Let $K$ be a splitting field of $f(x)$ over $F$. Then if the factorization of $f(x)$ over $K$ includes a term with power greater than $1$, (i.e.: $f(x)$ is inseparable), then I am trying to show that the factorization of $f(x)$ over $K$ must also include at term with power exactly $1$. That is, that the factorization of $f(x)$ over $K$ must be of the form $(x-\alpha)^2(x-\beta)$.
That does not seem right. Certainly the polynomial $f(x) = (x-\alpha)^3$ is a counter-example? But $(x-\alpha)^3 = x^3 - 3\alpha x^2 + 3\alpha^2 x - \alpha^3$, so actually $K = F$ in this case, is this what Dummit means by ``linear factor''? That question does not even make sense!
Or is it I am trying to show that $f(x)$ is actually reducible over $F$ and includes a linear term in the factorization of $f(x)$ over $F$?
But wait, this whole section is about the Galois groups of separable polynomials? How can I apply anything I have just learned to inseparable polynomials? I find a paragraph in the book:
Note that over $\mathbf{Q}$ or over a finite field (or, more generally, over any perfect field) the splitting field of an arbitrary polynomial f(x) is the same as the splitting field for the product of the irreducible factors of $f(x)$ taken precisely once, which is a separable polynomial.
I try to convince myself that this statement is true. Suppose $f(x)$ is polynomial with coefficients in a field $F$ and $K$ is a splitting field of $f(x)$ over $F$. Suppose $f(x)$ factors as $f(x) = (x-a_1)^{n_1}\ldots (x-a_k)^{n_k}$ over $K$, where $a_1,\ldots, a_k$ are the $k$ distinct roots of $f(x)$. Then $K = F(a_1,\ldots,a_k)$. Now let $g(x) = (x-a_1) \ldots (x-a_k)$. But must the coefficients of $g(x)$ be in $F$? If $s_1, \ldots, s_k$ are the elementary symmetric functions in $a_1, \ldots, a_k$, the best I can say is that the coefficients of $g(x)$ lie in $F(s_1, \ldots, s_k)$. But ok, I can convince myself that the splitting field of $g(x)$ over $F(s_1, \ldots, s_k)$ is $F(s_1, \ldots, s_k, a_1, \ldots, a_k) = F(a_1, \ldots, a_k)$. So the splitting field of $f(x)$ over $F$ is equal to the splitting field of $g(x)$ over $F(s_1, \ldots, s_k)$, but nowhere did I use the fact that $F$ is a perfect field. What did I miss? Further, $F(a_1, \ldots, a_k)$ is Galois over $F(s_1, \ldots, s_k)$, but must $F(a_1, \ldots, a_k)$ be Galois over $F$? Is this where $F$ being perfect is needed? How does it make sense to talk about the Galois group of an inseparable polynomial otherwise?
First question: "That does not seem right. Certainly the polynomial $f(x) = (x-\alpha)^3$ is a counter-example?"
Why that? It has a linear factor $(x-\alpha)$, even three times.
Consider the quartic polynomial $f(x)=(x^2+x+1)^2$. Does it have a linear factor in $\Bbb Q[x]$?