I found this approximation online:
When $h \to 0$, $\dfrac{\Gamma(h+\alpha)\cdot h}{\Gamma(h+1)}\sim \Gamma(\alpha)\cdot h$
How is this so, please? Thanks.
I found this approximation online:
When $h \to 0$, $\dfrac{\Gamma(h+\alpha)\cdot h}{\Gamma(h+1)}\sim \Gamma(\alpha)\cdot h$
How is this so, please? Thanks.
Since $ x \mapsto \Gamma(\cdot)$ is a continuous function, as $h \to 0$, one has $$ \Gamma(h+\alpha) \sim \Gamma(0+\alpha)=\Gamma(\alpha), \quad \Gamma(h+1)\sim \Gamma(1)=1 $$ giving $$ \dfrac{\Gamma(h+\alpha)\cdot h}{\Gamma(h+1)}\sim \dfrac{\Gamma(0+\alpha)\cdot h}{\Gamma(0+1)}=\Gamma(\alpha)\cdot h $$