Can someone help me to confirm this identity that I have established, I really have no idea how I would go about proving that this is true.
By the way, this is not a homework assignment, I am just genuinely curious. Thank you!
If $f(x)=x^x$, then
$$f^{(n+1)}(x)=f^{(n)}(x)(\ln(x)+1)+\sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^{k+1}\frac{n!}{k(n-k)!}f^{(n-k)}(x)$$ $$\text{ for } n\in\mathbb{N}$$
where $f^{(n)}(x)$ is the $n^{\text{th}}$ derivative of $f(x)$
For $n = 1$,
$$\begin{align*} f(x) &= x^x\\ & = e^{x\ln x}\\ f'(x) &= \frac{d}{dx} e^{x\ln x}\\ &= e^{x\ln x} \left(\ln x + 1\right)\\ &= x^x\left(\ln x + 1\right)\\ \end{align*}$$
Let $g(x) = \ln x + 1$. Then for $k \ge 1$, $$g^{(k)}(x) = (-1)^{k-1}(k-1)!\ x^{-k}$$
From the second derivative onwards, i.e. $n \ge 1$, using the general Leibniz rule,
$$\begin{align*} f^{(n+1)}(x) &= \frac{d^n}{dx^n}f'(x)\\ &= \frac{d^n}{dx^n}\left[f(x)\ g(x)\right]\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\ f^{(n-k)}(x)\ g^{(n)}(x)\\ &= f^{(n)}(x)\ g^{(0)}(x) + \sum_{k=1}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\ f^{(n-k)}(x)\ g^{(n)}(x)\\ &= f^{(n)}(x) \left(\ln x + 1\right) + \sum_{k=1}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\ f^{(n-k)}(x)\left[(-1)^{k-1}(k-1)!\ x^{-k}\right]\\ &= f^{(n)}(x) \left(\ln x + 1\right) + \sum_{k=1}^{n}(-1)^{k+1}\frac{n!}{k(n-k)!}\ f^{(n-k)}(x)\ \color{red}{x^{-k}}\\ \end{align*}$$
The red $x^{-k}$ is what I think the question may be missing, but I could be wrong.