Is it true that the binomial expansion of ${(x-y)}^n$ is the same as the binomial expansion of ${(y-x)}^n$ if $n$ is even but is not the same if $n$ is odd ?
2026-04-05 17:13:22.1775409202
general formula in a binomial expansion
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One easy thing to see is that $$ (x-y)^n = \left[-(y-x)\right]^n = (-1)^n (y-x)^n. $$ Can you finish this from here?