I've been reading a research paper, and I'm interested in generalizing a certain theorem but I can't seem to understand how the following results are derived:
$$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j\neq i}^n \frac{1}{z_i-z_j}=0$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j\neq i}^n \frac{z_i}{z_i-z_j}=\frac{1}{2}n(n-1)$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j\neq i}^n \frac{z_i^2}{z_i-z_j}=(n-1)\sum_{i=1}^n z_i$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j\neq i}^n \frac{z_i^3}{z_i-z_j}=(n-1)\sum_{i=1}^n z_i^2 + \sum_{i<j}^n z_i z_j$$
Just note that each term $$ \frac{1}{z_i-z_j} $$ appears twice, the second time with opposite sign, and hence their sum is zero.