Let $a_n$ and $b_n$ denote two series with well defined limits $a, b \in \mathbb{R}$ for $n\longrightarrow \infty$.
Is it possible to say following?: $$\lim (a_n^{b_n}) = (\lim a_n)^{\lim b_n} = a^b$$
If not, can you give a counterexample?
Edit: Assume that $a$ positive.
That in general does not provide the result.
Assume that $a = -2$ and $b=1/2$ then
$$\lim (a_n^{b_n}) = (\lim a_n)^{\lim b_n} = a^b =(-2)^{1/2} =\sqrt{-2}$$
Does not make any sense in $\Bbb R.$
$$\lim (a_n^{b_n}) = \lim \exp(b_n\ln a_n =\lim \exp(b\ln a )= a^b $$
If $a_n>0$ and $a=0$ and $b<0$ then $ \ln a_n\to -\infty$ and $$\lim (a_n^{b_n}) = \lim \exp(b_n\ln a_n) =\infty $$
If $a_n>0$ and $a=0$ and $b>0$ then $ \ln a_n\to -\infty$ and $$\lim (a_n^{b_n}) = \lim \exp(b_n\ln a_n) =0 $$
Consider $$\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^\frac{1}{n} \to 1$$ but $$\left(\frac{1}{e^n}\right)^\frac{1}{n} \to e$$