I'm trying to trace a definition. For this question fix some group $G$ (we generalise to an arbitrary algebra later).
Definitions:
- Write $G'\leq G$ when $G'$ is a subgroup of $G$.
- Call $G'$ a maximal proper subgroup when $G'\leq G$ and $G'\neq G$ and $G'$ is maximal such.
- If $X\subseteq G$ then write $\langle X\rangle$ for the least subgroup of $G$ containing $X$, and call this the subgroup generated by $X$.
- If $X,Y\subseteq G$ then write $X\bowtie Y$ when $\langle X\cup Y\rangle=G$. (So $X$ generates $G$ when $X\bowtie X$.)
We now come to something less familiar:
Definition: Call a subgroup $T\leq G$ cotopen when for every pair of subgroups $G',G''\leq G$ we have that $$ G'\bowtie G'' \quad\text{implies}\quad (G'\bowtie T) \vee (T\bowtie G'') . $$ Unpacking the notation, this means that if $G'\cup G''$ generates $G$ then so does $G'\cup T$ or $T\cup G''$.
The property of being cotopen can be viewed as generalising the notion of maximal subgroup, in the following sense:
Lemma: If $T\leq G$ is a maximal proper subgroup of $G$, then $T$ is cotopen.
Proof: Consider any $G',G''\leq G$ such that $G'\bowtie G''$. There are now two easy cases:
- If $G'\subseteq T$ then from $G'\bowtie G''$ it easily follows that $T\bowtie G''$ and we are done.
- If $G'\not\subseteq T$ then by maximality of $T$ we have that $G'\bowtie T$ and again we are done.
My questions are:
- Has cotopenness been studied already and if so, where?
- Does this seem an interesting thing to look at?
Note on generalisations: I set this question up for groups but clearly the definitions work for subalgebras of any algebraic structure, and I am equally interested in cotopenness for arbitrary algebras. Cotopenness almost certainly generalises further (though I have not yet checked it) --- e.g. to the (maximal) ideals of a ring --- and I am also interested in that.
Thank you.
I'm elaborating on Arturo Magidin's excellent answer. Fix a group $G$.
Definitions:
Claim: $T$ is cotopoen if and only if $POver(T)$ is directed.
Proof. We prove two contrapositive implications:
Suppose there exist overgroups $E_1,E_2\in POver(T)$ of $T$ such that $\langle E_1, E_2\rangle=G$. Clearly $\langle T,E_2\rangle = E_2$ and $\langle E_1,T\rangle = E_1$. Thus, $T$ is not cotopen.
Suppose $T$ is not cotopoen. Let $H$ and $K$ be subgroups such that $\langle H,K\rangle = G$, but $E_1=\langle H,T\rangle \neq G$ and $E_2=\langle K,T\rangle\neq G$. Then we see that $POver(T)$ is not directed, because it contains $E_1$ and $E_2$ but not $\langle E_1,E_2\rangle\geq \langle H,K\rangle=G$.
Corollary of Claim: If $G$ satisfies ACC on subgroups (Ascending Chain Condition: every ascending chain is eventually constant) then $T$ is cotopoen if and only if $T$ has a greatest (= unique maximal) proper overgroup. In particular this holds if $G$ is finite.
Proof: It is a fact that a directed poset with ACC has a greatest element.
Remark: For finite groups, "cotopen" = "has unique maximal proper overgroup".
Question: Assuming the analysis above is correct, I can repose my original question as follows: is the study of (unique, maximal) proper subalgebras above some subalgebra (or perhaps of similar structures, like ideals) a thing, and if so, can someone provide references? Thank you.