I am reading Herbert Wilf's Generatingfunctionology these days. And on Page 21, Section 1.6 Another 2-Variable Case, I was confused by the operation he did on formula (1.36), which is:
...
The partial fraction expansion in question has the form:
$$\frac{1}{(1-x)(1-2x)...(1-kx)}=\sum_{j=1}^{k}\frac{a_j}{1-jx}$$
To find the $\alpha$'s, fix $r$, $1\le r \le k$, multiply both sides by $1-rx$, and let $x=\frac{1}{r}$.
As there is such a term $(1-rx)$ on the LHS as part of the divisor, I thought that that implies that $(1-rx)\ne0$, which means $x\ne\frac{1}{r}$. But later on, as mentioned above, the author just let $x=\frac{1}{r}$, which doesn't seems to make sense to me.
My question is why is this operation allowed? Is there any special theorem related to this?
Thanks in advance.
Generating functions are often in a class of objects called formal power series, where the notion of convergence need not apply (though it often does for small values of $x$). That is to say, you are not actually evaluating the series for any value of $x$; it is being treated as an algebraic object in its own right. All you care about are the coefficients for each power of $x$, and this substitution is merely an algebraic trick to find them.