I am currently studying Fitch-style natural deduction and I am having trouble proving $p ∨ (p → q)$ without being given a premise.
Below is something I've tried. But it doesn't seem right at all. I'm only using basic intro/elim rules with LEM.

Help is greatly appreciated :)

Hint
Since you have LEM, if you can show $p\vdash p\lor (p\to q)$ and $\lnot p\vdash p\lor(p\to q)$ then you can get the result by $\lor$-elimination on $p\lor \lnot p.$ The first is obvious. The second isn't too bad either (clearly you need to take the right branch).