As in the title, the question is
Give a natural deduction proof of $\varphi\vdash\top$, where $\varphi$ is any formula.
Could I do this proof by deriving $\varphi \rightarrow \top$ with $ \rightarrow$-introduction rule which says that if you can derive a formula $\psi$ from a formula $\varphi$, then $\varphi \rightarrow \psi$ is true. So, with this derivation I will use $\varphi$ as an assumption and derive from $\varphi$, or am I thinking wrong? I prefer hints before solution!
HINT
I'll give you an answer in Hilbert-style, and I suggest you to try to convert it into Natural Deduction.
A quite "ubiquitous" axiom in Hilbert-style propositional logic is :
Thus, if we can prove $\vdash \psi$, we can use modus ponens (i.e. $\rightarrow$-elimination) to conclude with :
The lesson is :
Thus, the question suggests the following strategy : we have to prove : $\vdash \top$ and then use it as $\psi$ above.
Proof
i) $\varphi$ --- assumed
ii) $\bot$ --- assumed
iii) $\bot \vdash \bot$ --- from ii)
iv) $\vdash \bot \rightarrow \bot$ --- from iii) by $\rightarrow$-intro
v) $\vdash \lnot \bot$ --- by def of $\lnot$
vi) $\vdash \top$ --- abbreviation.
Thus, from i) and vi) :