Give an example of the following or explain why it's impossible (Real Analysis):

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A sequence $(f_n)$ of differentiable functions such that both $(f_n)$ and $(f'_n)$ converge uniformly but $f = \lim f_n$ is not differentiable at some point.

Thoughts so far:

We are taking the domain of these functions as all of $\mathbb{R}$.

I am under the impression that this request might be impossible since we can simply apply the Differentiable Limit Theorem. Is this correct or am I missing something?