This question relates to a seminar I've been working on, so I do not wish to disclose the whole question but simply ask how this would be handeled in theory.
$A = \begin{bmatrix}a & b \\ c & d \end{bmatrix}$ $Q=(\lambda I - A) = \begin{bmatrix}\lambda - a & -b \\ -c & \lambda - d \end{bmatrix}$
We then want to find the eigenvalues of $A$, which responds to solving $\det(Q)=0$. My question is, given that we would get two unique eigenvalues, does that mean we are guaranteed that matrix $A$ is diagonalizable? I have only found a theorem that says if we have two distinct eigenvectors for a $2\times 2$ matrix $A$, then $A$ is diagonalizable...
Help would be much appreciated!
If you have $2$ unique eigenvalues, it means your characteristic polynomial will look like this: $(λ-a)(λ-b)$, where $a$ and $b$ are your eigenvalues.
Now a matrix is diagonizable if for each of its eigenvalues the algebraic multiplicity is equal to the geometric multiplicity.
In our case you have an algebraic multiplicity of $1$ (for each eigenvalue), and thus their geometric multiplicity is also equal to $1$ ($0<\text{geometric multiplicity} \leq \text{algebraic multiplicity}$) thus the matrix is diagonizable.
So for a general $n\times n$ matrix if you have $n$ unique eigenvalues, it's diagonizable.