Let $A_x \in \mathbb{R^{n \times n}}$ be defined as $A_y = \vec x \cdot \vec x^T$, where $\vec x \in \mathbb{R^n}$, $||\vec x||>1$ and $n > 2$, then are $- \vec x $ and $\vec x $ eigen vectors of $A_x$ and if soil $\vec x$ an eigen value of $A_x$. I wasn't sure how to solve this, so I used a simple example to try to understand this. I chose $n = 3$, which gives us $A_x = \begin{bmatrix}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\\\end{bmatrix}$ and choosing $\vec x = \begin{bmatrix}1\\2\\3\\\end{bmatrix}$, I get $||\vec x||= \sqrt {14}>1$. But I'm not sure how $\vec x \vec x^T$ fits into this. Based on my chosen matrix $A_x$, I get eigen values to be $λ=0, λ=\frac{15+3\sqrt{33}}{2},\:λ=\frac{15-3\sqrt{33}}{2}$ and the eigen vectors to be $\begin{pmatrix}1\\ -2\\ 1\end{pmatrix},\:\begin{pmatrix}2\left(3\sqrt{33}-11\right)\\ 11+3\sqrt{33}\\ 44\end{pmatrix},\:\begin{pmatrix}-2\left(11+3\sqrt{33}\right)\\ -3\sqrt{33}+11\\ 44\end{pmatrix}$. This shows that $- \vec x$ and $\vec x$ are not eigen vectors of $A_v$ and $||\vec x ||$ is also not an eigen value of $A_x$ but I'm pretty sure that that's wrong and that I need to use the fact that $A_x = \vec x \vec x^T$ and work with that to answer my question.
Given a matrix $A_x$, which of the following properties is true?
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Well lets try to explicitly solve for an eigenvector $v$. We have $$A_xv = xx^T (v) = x(x^T v) = x \langle v, x \rangle = \langle v, x \rangle x.$$
Case 1, $\langle v, x \rangle = 0$: We have $$Av = 0 = 0v.$$ Therefore if $\langle v, x \rangle = 0$, then $v$ is an eigenvector of $A_x$ with an eigenvalue of $0$.
Case 2, $\langle v, x \rangle \neq 0$: Suppose $$Av = \langle v, x \rangle x = \lambda v$$ for some eigenvalue $\lambda$. Then $\lambda$ cannot be zero because $\langle v, x \rangle x \neq 0$. Thus, dividing through by $\lambda$ we get $$v = \frac{\langle v, x \rangle}{\lambda}x = NONZERO \cdot x.$$ Therefore $x$ is an eigenvector of $A_x$ and we can calculate its eigenvalue: $$A_x x = \langle x, x \rangle x = ||x||^2x,$$ so the eigenvalue associated with $x$ is $||x||^2$.
We have explicitly solved for the eigenvalues and their associated eigenvectors by covering all the cases, so these must be the only eigenvectors and eigenvalues.
Use the fundamental definition of an eigenvector: it’s a vector $\vec x$ such that $A\vec x=\lambda\vec x$ for some scalar $\lambda$. Here, $$A\vec x = (\vec x \vec x^T) \vec x = \vec x (\vec x^T\vec x).$$ Now $\vec x^T\vec x$ is just the dot product of $\vec x$ with itself, and that’s a scalar, so $A\vec x$ is indeed equal to a scalar times $\vec x$, hence it’s an eigenvector of $A$. You could do the same thing for $-\vec x$, but there’s really no need to since any nonzero multiple of an eigenvector is also an eigenvector.
As to why this didn’t work for your example, that’s because your $A_x\ne\vec x\vec x^T$. In fact, it’s not equal to either $\vec v\vec x^T$ or $\vec x\vec v^T$ for any vector $\vec v$. Try again with $$A=\begin{bmatrix}1\\2\\3\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}1&2&3\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}1&2&3\\2&4&6\\3&6&9\end{bmatrix}$$ instead.