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2026-03-29 15:02:30.1774796550

Given a non-symmetric matrix $A$, when does $x^TAx<0$ implies existence of a eigenvalue with negative real part?

43 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At 29 Mar 2026 - 3:02 2026-03-29 15:12:30.1774797150

Let $A$ be a (possibly) non-symmetric matrix, and there exists a vector $x$ such that $x^TAx<0$. Under what further conditions can one conclude that there exists an eigenvalue with negative real part?

eigenvalues-eigenvectors
Original Q&A

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