Let $f:(\mathbb{N}\ \cup \{0\})^2$ $\rightarrow\mathbb{N}\ \cup\{0\}$ be such that $f(0, x) = f(x, 0) = 1$ for all x $\in$ $\mathbb{N}\ \cup$ {$0$}. Also for all $i, j \in\ \mathbb{N}$ we have $f(i, j) = f(i − 1, j − 1) + f(i, j − 1)$. Find $f(1009, 2019)$.
What I've tried:
I took two cases: $i>=j$ and $i<j$.
As $j$ is reduced by $1$ in both $f(i-1,j-1)$ and $f(i,j-1)$, if $j<=i$, then $j$ will reach $0$ first irrespective of $i$. So the value of $f(i,j)$ is $2^{j}$. Here's a branch diagram to illustrate what I meant 
So $f(3,2)=2^2=4$
However I'm stuck at finding the pattern for the other case ($j>i$). Example for $f(i,j)$ where $i<j$:
$f(2,3)=7$
I do recognize that I can stop evaluating once I reach a point where $i=j$ but I can't find at which places and how many times they reach that point. It would be highly helpful If you would help me find the pattern. Also, am I going in the right direction? Is there any other way to solve this problem(a formula or something)? Help would be highly appreciable!
I programmed the sequence to see if there is any pattern. Below is the $13 \times 13$ matrix including enough initial values to notice the pattern to be proven by induction after all:
So, the pattern I noticed is as follows: $$f(m,n) = \begin{cases} \displaystyle\sum\limits_{k=0}^{m} {n \choose k},\ \ m < n \\[1mm] 2^n, \qquad \ \ \ \ ~ m\ge n \end{cases}$$ Next, we should prove it by induction.
$\square$ We have enough information for the base case (see the table above). Now assume that $$f(m-1,n-1) = \sum_{k=0}^{m-1}{n-1 \choose k} $$ and $$ f(m,n-1) = \sum_{k=0}^{m}{n-1 \choose k}$$ are true.
We should show that $f(m-1,n-1) + f(m,n-1) = f(m,n)$ is found by the same formula; that is, we are to prove $$\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}{n-1 \choose k} + \sum_{k=0}^{m}{n-1 \choose k} = \sum_{k=0}^{m} {n \choose k}$$
Indeed, $$ \begin{align} \sum_{k=0}^{m-1}{n-1 \choose k} + \sum_{k=0}^{m}{n-1 \choose k} &= \sum_{k=1}^{m}{n-1 \choose k-1} + {n-1\choose 0} + \sum_{k=1}^{m}{n-1 \choose k} \\[1mm] &= {n-1\choose 0} + \sum_{k=1}^{m}\left[{n-1 \choose k-1} +{n-1 \choose k}\right] \\[1mm] &\overset*= {n\choose 0} + \sum_{k=1}^{m}{n\choose k} \\[1mm] &= \sum_{k=0}^m {n\choose k} \end{align} $$ where (*) denotes the Pascal's formula. $\blacksquare$
$\square$ The base case and the induction hypothesis are analogous and the induction step is trivially proven by noting that $$\underbrace{2^{n-1}}_{f(m-1,n-1)}+\underbrace{2^{n-1}}_{f(m,n-1)} = \underbrace{2^n}_{f(m,n)}. \ \ \blacksquare$$
Finally, we note that $$\boxed{f(1009, 2019) = \sum_{k=0}^{1009}{2019 \choose k}}$$